Why did Jesus say several times that nobody has seen God, when plenty of people are recorded as having seen and heard God in the Bible ? John 6:46; John 1:18; John 5:37; also 1 John 4:12: “No one has seen God at ANY time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him”.
There appears to be a contradiction, since Jesus said no man has ever seen or heard God, yet many times throughout the Old Testament, people DID see and hear God! Nonetheless, “You have never heard his voice, nor seen his form….” [John 5:37]
The Voice of God
What then of Ezekiel? “This was the appearance of the likeness of the glory of the Lord. When I saw it, I fell facedown, and I heard the voice of one speaking.” (Ezekiel 1:28)
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